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FDCPA question



"Cody"
3/9/2005 10:24:56 PM


I have looked for this answer in the FDCPA and I didnt find it,
though it must be in there.
If someone owes a debt (from a stipulation) and is late with the
payment, the collection agency calls and says they will get a judgement
if they do not receive payment by tomorrow...
And then they do recieve payment by tomorrow, and yet file for a
judgement anyway, is this in violation of the FDCPA.
I know that collection agencies cannot say and do a lot of things,
but considering they were paid before the date they gave, and file for
a judgement, sounds wrong, and I dont know if this is covered in the
FDCPA or not.
Thank You
 
 
Paul Cassel
3/11/2005 9:25:25 PM


Cody wrote:
I have looked for this answer in the FDCPA and I didnt find it,
though it must be in there.
If someone owes a debt (from a stipulation) and is late with the
payment, the collection agency calls and says they will get a judgement
if they do not receive payment by tomorrow...
And then they do recieve payment by tomorrow, and yet file for a
judgement anyway, is this in violation of the FDCPA.
I know that collection agencies cannot say and do a lot of things,
but considering they were paid before the date they gave, and file for
a judgement, sounds wrong, and I dont know if this is covered in the
FDCPA or not.
AFAIK this isn't a violation of the Act. It is a violation of an oral
contract or agreement you had. The question is if the oral supercedes
the written on (which I'm guessing exists). Assuming you do have a
contract in writing that stipulates certain terms and you violated those
terms, the agency can act in accordance with you being in default. That
is notwithstanding that you may or may not have understood the oral
offer to extend the grace period.
Practically speaking, this is 'he said she said' and you can't prevail
here under any circumstances I can think of. Next time get extensions in
writing.
-paul
ianal
 
 
"Scott Hedrick"
3/14/2005 5:46:05 PM




"Cody" <bulldog864@aol.com> wrote in message
news:muev21dvlgb0993akmhptl3r59p2fkmrhh@4ax.com...

And then they do recieve payment by tomorrow, and yet file for a
judgement anyway
You can't "file for a judgment". You can file a lawsuit which may end up
with a judgment. Stipulating to the debt as part of a lawsuit may very well
permit the other party to file for a summary judgment.
Yes, if you pay, even if you pay in full, a lawsuit can be filed. *I* could
file a lawsuit against you because I don't like the color of your eyes.
*Winning* is a different matter. Paying in full prior to the court filing is
a defense, and could even be the basis for a countersuit. Having a receipt
in hand showing that you paid in full, dated *prior* to the other party
asking for summary judgment, might very well end up with sanctions for the
other party for filing a frivolous motion.
 
 
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