"G Wheelock" <gwheelock@comcast.net> wrote:
My question is this - is it legal to effectivly change the deed
by changing the definition upon which the deed was
originally based (it almost sounds equivalent to changing the
definition of "foot" in a land legal def).
Well, it's certainly legal. That's not the real question. The
question is, was making this change proper under the circumstances?
For that I would need to read both your original deed, the CC&R's and
any other contract you had when you bought the property, as well as
all annual minutes and other documents generated in the years
between.
In other words, it's too long and complex to be dealt with here.
My suggestion is that if you did not get actual notice prior to the
change, take them to small claims court for the cost of staying
somewhere else.
Stu
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