In article <8v1ea15lf51qla42ldk2u0dhv8jpmnt35f@4ax.com>,
<rbb@earthlink.datafoundry.com> wrote:
I live in a rented house in California. I was denied the use of
certain amenities specified in my lease for the first year of a 3 year
lease. I'vre politely complained about the unavailable amenties each
month in writing. The house is being sold and I've been asked to sign
an estoppel certificate. Should I specify the problem in the estoppel
certificate.
What does the certificate say, and why should you sign it at all?
Legaldocs.com says:
"An Estoppel Certificate is typically used when the owner of a
commercial property wants to sell or refinance the property, and the
owner is required by the buyer or lender to substantiate the status of
all leases in the property, and that the tenant(s) do not have any
claims against the landlord which would allow the tenants to offset or
withhold future rent payments."
Is the lack of those amenities something you want to be compensated
for? If so, were I in your position, I'd request that compensation
prior to signing the certificate. (I'd also want a rider added to the
lease reducing future rent in the event those amenities remain
unavailable, and that rider included in the certificate.)
Or ask a local real estate attorney what he thinks is best.
Seth
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