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Trademark theory question



usenet@hockeydb.com (Ralph Slate)
10/10/2003 6:41:27 PM


I'd like to know what people think of this situation.
If a company purchased copies of the NY Times, and then inserted
advertising flyers in them, resold them for 1/2 price, would this be a
trademark infringement situation?
The theory would be that the person doing this would be using the good
name of the NY Times to sell advertising, that would deliberately
create confusion as to who is sanctioning the advertising.
My opinion is that this would probably be a trademark infringement, or
possibly an unfair business practice.
Now I'd like to draw an analogy.
There was a recent lawsuit by companies like UPS against an internet
company called WhenU. WhenU makes software that is usually included
when you install other software applications -- it defrays the cost of
the software. WhenU's software pops up advertising when you go to
certain sites -- if you go to UPS, it pops up an ad for FedEx, for
example.
The Eastern District Court of Virginia ruled that WhenU's behavior is
permissable, because the end users have agreed to install this
software on their own PC's. A link can be found here:
http://www.whenu.com/news_businessweek.html
Another example is a browser called Opera that also shows
advertisements based on the content of the site that a user visits. If
you go to a site about stereos, the browser will show you ads for
stereos. It doesn't interfere with the website, so there's probably no
copyright violation, but it does use the content of the website to
match the ad, making the ad seem to be in some way related to the
site. It also uses the site's content to make money without the
consent of the site owner, so I could see some kind of copyright
violation there.
Isn't this the same situation as someone who inserts his own
advertising into copies of the NY Times?
Ralph Slate
http://www.hockeydb.com
 
 
"Richard"
10/10/2003 10:48:45 PM


Ralph wrote:
I'd like to know what people think of this situation.
If a company purchased copies of the NY Times, and then inserted
advertising flyers in them, resold them for 1/2 price, would this be a
trademark infringement situation?
The theory would be that the person doing this would be using the good
name of the NY Times to sell advertising, that would deliberately
create confusion as to who is sanctioning the advertising.
My opinion is that this would probably be a trademark infringement, or
possibly an unfair business practice.
Now I'd like to draw an analogy.
There was a recent lawsuit by companies like UPS against an internet
company called WhenU. WhenU makes software that is usually included
when you install other software applications -- it defrays the cost of
the software. WhenU's software pops up advertising when you go to
certain sites -- if you go to UPS, it pops up an ad for FedEx, for
example.
The Eastern District Court of Virginia ruled that WhenU's behavior is
permissable, because the end users have agreed to install this
software on their own PC's. A link can be found here:
http://www.whenu.com/news_businessweek.html
Another example is a browser called Opera that also shows
advertisements based on the content of the site that a user visits. If
you go to a site about stereos, the browser will show you ads for
stereos. It doesn't interfere with the website, so there's probably no
copyright violation, but it does use the content of the website to
match the ad, making the ad seem to be in some way related to the
site. It also uses the site's content to make money without the
consent of the site owner, so I could see some kind of copyright
violation there.
Isn't this the same situation as someone who inserts his own
advertising into copies of the NY Times?
Ralph Slate
http://www.hockeydb.com
If the NY Times found out about the gimmick, I'm sure the lawyers would find
something in the laws they could use to stop it.
The real trick would be to remove 90% of the paper, then insert your own
ads.
People would think they're buying a full newspaper, only to be duped.
Of course, that wouldn't last long either.
Question really is, why would a person go to the trouble of doing such a
thing?
As for the ads on the internet, that's not invasive or infringement of
anything.
Just by being connected, you have technically agreed to be a victim of
anything that passes on to your screen.
Much like watching television and being slammed with commercials.
Or worse, paying for cable and the privilege to watch even more commercials.
How about software I buy that tells me that I have to install gator/gain in
order to use it?
How about AOL installing all kinds of stuff on my machine without my
knowledge or consent?
And the list goes on and on and on and on and.........
Life's a "beech" baby, live it up.
mexican version of #@&@
.
 
 
"John D. Goulden"
10/11/2003 8:06:34 PM


Another example is a browser called Opera that also shows
advertisements based on the content of the site that a user visits. If
you go to a site about stereos, the browser will show you ads for
stereos. It doesn't interfere with the website, so there's probably no
copyright violation, but it does use the content of the website to
match the ad, making the ad seem to be in some way related to the
site. It also uses the site's content to make money without the
consent of the site owner, so I could see some kind of copyright
violation there.
Isn't this the same situation as someone who inserts his own
advertising into copies of the NY Times?
No. You gave permission to accept ads generated by the browser when you
agreed to the Opera EULA. See http://www.opera.com/privacy, which is
incorporated into the EULA by reference.
John D. Goulden
 
 
Paul Robinson
10/19/2003 12:26:35 AM


Ralph Slate wrote:
I'd like to know what people think of this situation.
If a company purchased copies of the NY Times, and then inserted
advertising flyers in them, resold them for 1/2 price, would this be a
trademark infringement situation?
I'm not a lawyer but here's my take.
First sale rule applies. Once the NY Times sells its paper the purchaser
owns that copy and may dispose of it as they please. Now, if there is an
implication that the ad was issued by the NY Times there may be an issue
of palming off, but the simplest answer is to either put the ad in a bag
with the newspaper, such that it's separate from it, or clearly have the
ad indicate it is not part of the paper. "This advertisement was not
included with the newspaper nor was it printed or issued by the New York
Times."
One possibility is to put them together in a plastic bag that says,
"Reduced price copies provided courtesy of ..." and whoever is putting in
the ads.
The theory would be that the person doing this would be using the good
name of the NY Times to sell advertising, that would deliberately
create confusion as to who is sanctioning the advertising.
If the ad indicates it's not from the Times there's no confusion.
My opinion is that this would probably be a trademark infringement, or
possibly an unfair business practice.
Without any indication that is quite possible to argue that.
--
Paul Robinson "Above all else... We shall go on..."
"...And continue!"
"If the lessons of history teach us anything it is
that nobody learns the lessons that history teaches us."
 
 
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