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Hi I work for a consulting company (A). We signed an agreement with a bodyshop (B) to place our consultant at a large corporation (D). The bodyshop was also not a direct vendor to the large corporation. They again signed up with another bodyshop (C) to ultimately place our consultant at (D). After a year of work, the consulting company (A) decided to find new and different set of customers. They posted on the internet that we have these services available. Another unrelated bodyshop (Y), a vendor to a totally different corporation (X) approached (A) after looking at the internet posting. They offerred the job and decided to sign the agreement. A reasonable notice was given to the previous companies (B, C & D) and the consultant was ready to move on. They were all okay with the termination of the contract. However - bodyshop (B) found out that consulting (A) is now dealing with corporation (X). They objected to it and said that (A) should work with (B) at (X) also. (A) showed no interest in working with (B) anymore. (B) pressured (A) by saying that (X) is also (B)'s client and therefore (A) is bound to work with (B). Apparently, (B) is supplying consultants to (C) to place them at (X) also. (A) resisted that argument by saying that there was no such agreement between (A) and (B). There is no agreement between (A) and (C) directly either. Moreover, (X) cannot be considered (B)'s client because (B) supplies to (C) and not to (X) directly. (A) understands that they cannot work for (D) directly because (B & C) introduced them to (A), unless working through (B & C). However, (A) is free to work with (X & Y) and anyone else unrelated to work agreement regarding (C & D). (B) in particular claims (A) cannot work with anyone anywhere where (B) claims has ultimately placed its consultants. (B) also claims that (A) had the knowledge of (B)'s presence in (X) - although there is no paper to indicate that. But claims that that knowledge would stop (A) from working for (X). Although, (A) says the knowledge of (B)'s presence in (X) does not matter because (A) was not introduced by (B) to (X) or by anyone related to (B, C & D). No such agreements were ever made. Here are the agreement clauses signed between (A) and (B). "NON COMPETE CLAUSE Subcontractor agrees and covenants that for a period of 1 year following completion or cancellation of contract services for any cause, subcontractor will not directly or indirectly in his behalf, or on behalf of any employee or prospective employer attempt to solicit or market consulting services to, interefere with or endeavor to entice away from (B), or perform consulting services for, or accept employment with those customers, persons, or corporations dealing with (B). The subcontractor agrees, during the duration of this agreement only to contact (B)'s client on matters pertaining to the said services. Subcontractor agrees that this noncompete provision will not adversely affect the livelihood of subcontractor or subcontractor employees. Exhibit A: Service Purchase Order (Attached to Contract Agreement) Client Name/ Location: (D), (D)'s Location" (B) has also withheld (A)'s last payments. Eventhough the contract also had explicit clauses on payment schedules: "Based on client approved time sheets, sub contractor will invoice Deegit on a month to month basis and the invoice shall be paid with in net thirty (30) days from the date of invoice." The invoices have not been paid over 45 days. And Witholding of payments have happened before (A) terminating the contract with (B, C & D) and signing the new contract to work with (Y & X). ---------------------- Opinions Received: One lawyer says - (B) does not have a case. (A) can go ahead and work with (X) Questions: - Hasn't the contract been breached by (B) already for non-payment? - The non compete agreement only applies to (B)'s clients mentionaed in the 'Exhibit A: Service Purchase Order'. Atleast, this was the spirit it was signed in anyway. Does that seem clear? - Can (X) be considered (B)'s client if they are not directly supplying to (X)? They have no direct interactions/agreements with (X). - Contract Agreement between (A) and (B) is under the jurisdiction of illinois. In case of a law suit, would illinois courts provide reasonable attorney fee to the winning party? The agreement does not talk of such a provision for (A). It just says if (B) wins, (B) will be awarded. - Please mention any other complications, if obvious.
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