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I need to know becasue there are often situations where I must walk on grass if it is not prohibited by law. I've read some books about turfgrass maintenance and I've discovered that any walking on grass always causes some damage that is detectable. But OTOH common usage would suggest that it is legal to walk on the grass, unless there is a sign or law that specifically says otherwise. Any advice? Thanks in advance. I am not a lawyer. I do not even see email sent to this address, due to past DOS attacks. If you wish to respond, do so through this newsgroup.
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If a jury finds that a reasonable person in your position could have seen that walking on the grass was "reckless" and destructive to the grass, you could be validly found guilty of criminal mischief.
I need to know becasue there are often situations where I must walk on grass if it is not prohibited by law. I've read some books about turfgrass maintenance and I've discovered that any walking on grass always causes some damage that is detectable. But OTOH common usage would suggest that it is legal to walk on the grass, unless there is a sign or law that specifically says otherwise. Any advice? Thanks in advance. I am not a lawyer. I do not even see email sent to this address, due to past DOS attacks. If you wish to respond, do so through this newsgroup.
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If a jury finds that a reasonable person in your position could have seen that walking on the grass was "reckless" and destructive to the grass, you could be validly found guilty of criminal mischief.
That's not necessarily true. You need a statute or some authority setting out the elements of the crime. Under Texas' statute, at least, "reckless[ly]" walking on the grass is not crim mischief as a matter of law. Tex. Pen. Code 28.03. CRIMINAL MISCHIEF. (a) A person commits an offense if, without the effective consent of the owner: (1) he intentionally or knowingly damages or destroys the tangible property of the owner; (2) he intentionally or knowingly tampers with the tangible property of the owner and causes pecuniary loss or substantial inconvenience to the owner or a third person; or (3) he intentionally or knowingly makes markings, including inscriptions, slogans, drawings, or paintings, on the tangible property of the owner.
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Key term here is "knowingly".. . "knowledge" can be imputed when you do something that should be obvious to a reasonable person, ie. when you're reckless.
That's not necessarily true. You need a statute or some authority setting out the elements of the crime. Under Texas' statute, at least, "reckless[ly]" walking on the grass is not crim mischief as a matter of
law.
Tex. Pen. Code 28.03. CRIMINAL MISCHIEF. (a) A person commits an offense if, without the effective consent of the owner: (1) he intentionally or knowingly damages or destroys the tangible property of the owner; (2) he intentionally or knowingly tampers with the tangible property of the owner and causes pecuniary loss or substantial inconvenience to the owner or a third person; or (3) he intentionally or knowingly makes markings, including inscriptions, slogans, drawings, or paintings, on the tangible property of the owner.
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Key term here is "knowingly".. . "knowledge" can be imputed when you do something that should be obvious to a reasonable person, ie. when you're reckless.
Not really sure what you're getting at, so the following may be taking us further nowhere, but you asserted, without qualification, that recklessness was adequate to establish CM when recklessness is plainly *not* a sufficient mental state to establish it (again, I'm just referencing the TX statute). IOW, while a factfinder could probably infer knowledge from reckless conduct in many situations, conduct that rises *only* to the level of recklessness is prolly not knowing as a matter of law. As a practical matter, it's a fine line, but the line is definitely there. Also note that in your previous post you used an objective std when the statute requires a finding that the defendant in fact acted knowingly (and not whether a reasonable person would've acted knowingly). --- 6.03. DEFINITIONS OF CULPABLE MENTAL STATES. ..... (b) A person acts knowingly, or with knowledge, with respect to the nature of his conduct or to circumstances surrounding his conduct when he is aware of the nature of his conduct or that the circumstances exist. A person acts knowingly, or with knowledge, with respect to a result of his conduct when he is aware that his conduct is reasonably certain to cause the result. (c) A person acts recklessly, or is reckless, with respect to circumstances surrounding his conduct or the result of his conduct when he is aware of but consciously disregards a substantial and unjustifiable risk that the circumstances exist or the result will occur. The risk must be of such a nature and degree that its disregard constitutes a gross deviation from the standard of care that an ordinary person would exercise under all the circumstances as viewed from the actor's standpoint.
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Zen Cohen wrote:
Not really sure what you're getting at, so the following may be taking us further nowhere, but you asserted, without qualification, that
recklessness
was adequate to establish CM when recklessness is plainly *not* a
sufficient
mental state to establish it (again, I'm just referencing the TX
statute).
IOW, while a factfinder could probably infer knowledge from reckless
conduct
in many situations, conduct that rises *only* to the level of
recklessness
is prolly not knowing as a matter of law. As a practical matter, it's a fine line, but the line is definitely there. Also note that in your previous post you used an objective std when the statute requires a
finding
that the defendant in fact acted knowingly (and not whether a reasonable person would've acted knowingly). --- 6.03. DEFINITIONS OF CULPABLE MENTAL STATES. ..... (b) A person acts knowingly, or with knowledge, with respect to the nature of his conduct or to circumstances surrounding his conduct when he is aware of the nature of his conduct or that the circumstances exist. A person acts knowingly, or with knowledge, with respect to a result of his conduct when he is aware that his conduct is reasonably certain to cause the result. (c) A person acts recklessly, or is reckless, with respect to circumstances surrounding his conduct or the result of his conduct when he is aware of but consciously disregards a substantial and unjustifiable risk that the circumstances exist or the result will occur. The risk must be of such a nature and degree that its disregard constitutes a gross deviation from the standard of care that an ordinary person would exercise under all the circumstances as viewed from the actor's standpoint.
Golly, so from what you're saying I probably should not have looked in the book on turfgrass maintenance, because now I *know* that it does cause damage, so that puts me in a different class of people -- ? {using the TX law, of course} I am not a lawyer. I do not even see email sent to this address, due to past DOS attacks. If you wish to respond, do so through this newsgroup.
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Zen Cohen wrote:
.....
Golly, so from what you're saying I probably should not have looked in the book on turfgrass maintenance, because now I *know* that it does cause damage, so that puts me in a different class of people -- ? {using the TX law, of course}
In a theoretical prosecution, it is is evidence that, if known, might be used against you to establish your mental state. But FWIW, I did landscaping in Texas before I became a lawyer (even took a course in Turfgrass Management), and based on my experience in both fields, no one's ever gonna charge (much less convict) you with crim mischief for walking on the grass unless you intentionally stomp the crap out of it.
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Zen Cohen wrote:
<thisisme@cotse.net> wrote in message
news:dGhpc2lzbWU=.a790dc83f917ff6886d090966c7513ff@1098988215.nulluser.com.. .. Zen Cohen wrote:
..... In a theoretical prosecution, it is is evidence that, if known, might be used against you to establish your mental state. But FWIW, I did
landscaping
in Texas before I became a lawyer (even took a course in Turfgrass Management), and based on my experience in both fields, no one's ever
gonna
charge (much less convict) you with crim mischief for walking on the
grass
unless you intentionally stomp the crap out of it.
I wouldn't be so sure, there was a guy who got arrested for eating weeds in central park. I am not a lawyer. I do not even see email sent to this address, due to past DOS attacks. If you wish to respond, do so through this newsgroup.
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